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- 1 Post By Rajasekaran
CAT 2011 RC Thread
Rules of the thread:
1. Do not post post the solutions the same day as you post the passage. Let everyone take a shot at the passage and wait until the next day to post the solution keys.
2. It's NOT compulsory to post only 1 RC a day. If you stumble upon a good passage and see that a passage has already been submitted for that day, not to worry, post yours too! The more, the merrier
That's it..no more rules More suggestions invited as we go along.
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anjalig (27-Apr-11), shaunak_87 (26-Apr-11), sumit2goody (27-Apr-11), tusharsem (30-Apr-11)
RC - 01
The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par (on a par: adv.同等) with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank (regional bank: 美国设在联邦储备区的联邦储备银行), which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment
(B) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment
(C) illustrate various ways in which a type of business investment could fail to enhance revenues
(D) trace the general problems of a company to a certain type of business investment
(E) criticize the way in which managers tend to analyze the costs and benefits of business investments
2. According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the
(A) tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
(B) increased revenues that they ultimately produce
(C) basis on which they need to be weighed
(D) insufficient analysis that managers devote to them
(E) degree of competitive advantage that they are likely to provide
3. The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its investment in enhancing that service?
(A) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate.
(B) It threatened to weaken the bank’s competitive position with respect to other regional banks.
(C) It had already been improved after having caused damage to the bank’s reputation in the past.
(D) It was slightly superior to that of the bank’s regional competitors.
(E) It needed to be improved to attain parity with the service provided by competing banks.
4. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement mentioned in line 19
(A) was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers
(B) made a measurable change in the experiences of customers in the bank’s offices
(C) could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly
(D) was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated
(E) was adequate to bring the bank’s general level of service to a level that was comparable with that of its competitors
5. The discussion of the regional bank (line 13-24) serves which of the following functions within the passage as a whole?
(A) It describes an exceptional case in which investment in service actually failed to produce a competitive advantage.
(B) It illustrates the pitfalls of choosing to invest in service at a time when investment is needed more urgently in another area.
(C) It demonstrates the kind of analysis that managers apply when they choose one kind of service investment over another.
(D) It supports the argument that investments in certain aspects of service are more advantageous than investments in other aspects of service.
(E) It provides an example of the point about investment in service made in the first paragraph.
6. The author uses the word “only” in line 23 most likely in order to
(A) highlight the oddity of the service improvement
(B) emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement
(C) distinguish the primary attribute of the service improvement from secondary attributes
(D) single out a certain merit of the service improvement from other merits
(E) point out the limited duration of the actual service improvement
P.S: From Older Threads
P.P.S: Answers along with bit explanation are most welcome
Originally Posted by Rajasekaran
My answers for RC 01 are following :
My answers for the RC01 are as follows,
Originally Posted by anjalig
Official Answers RC01
Official Answers RC - 1
P.S: Posted by Sumit
Explanation found in another forum.
Originally Posted by Rajasekaran
" The primary purpose of the passage is to "
This question asks you to identify the primary purpose of the passage as a whole. The best answer is B. The first two sentences of the passage point out that attempts to create superior service do not always result in a competitive advantage for a company and that investments in service need to be weighted against other possible methods for improving a company’s competitiveness. These statements suggest that more careful evaluation is needed when service improvements are being contemplated for the purpose of increasing competitiveness. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not contrast possible outcomes of investment in service. The only outcome of such investment that is discussed in the passage is hat of lack of improvement in competitive advantage. Choice C can be eliminated because although the passage illustrates a case in which investments in service did not result in increased competitiveness, it does not illustrate various ways in which
such investments fail to enhance revenues. Choice D is incorrect because the passage is not primarily about the regional bank referred to in the second paragraph and its problems. Rather, the bank is discussed as an example of the larger issue about which the passage is concerned. Choice E can be eliminated because the passage does not explain or criticize how managers actually analyze the costs and benefits of business investments: it indicates only that managers’ analysis in inadequate.
"According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the"
This question asks you to identify a similarity between investments in service and investments in production and distribution that is explicitly noted by the author in the passage. The best answer is C. In liens 3-7, the author observes that investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in that both types of investments need to be evaluated on the same basis; specifically the author states that both “must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues.” Choice A is not correct: lines 3-7 suggest that the author believes that both investments in service and investments in production and distribution may be worthwhile if they result in tangible benefits, but the author neither states nor suggests that the tangibility of investments in production and distribution. Choice B can be eliminated because there is no indication in the passage that when, I fact, investments in service do raise revenues, these revenues are comparable to the revenues raised by investments in production and distribution. Choice D is incorrect because although the passage does suggest that managers’ analysis of investments in service is insufficient, there is no indication in the passage that managers’ analysis of investments in production and distribution is also insufficient. Choice E can be eliminated because there is no discussion in the passage of the extent to which either investments in service or investments in production and distribution are likely to enhance competitive advantage.
"The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its investment in enhancing that service?"
This question asks you to draw a conclusion about the service provided by the regional bank discussed in lines 13-24, prior to this bank’s investments in service. The best answer is A. The words “This truth” in line 13 refer to the information presented in the previous sentence (lines 7-12). By putting together the information in this sentence and the information in the first sentence of the following paragraph, one can infer that even before this regional bank had instituted its service improvements, it was “already effectively on a par wit hits competitors because it provided service that avoided a damaging reputation and kept customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate,…”(lines 8-10). Choice B can be eliminated because there is no indication in the passage that the bank’s competitive position was threatened by its service. On the contrary, the passage suggests that the bank’s service was equal to that of its competitors. Choice C can be eliminated because there is no suggestion in the passage that the bank’s reputation had been damaged in the past by its service; indeed, the passage suggests that the bank had avoided a damaging reputation (lines 7-9). Choice D and E are incorrect in that they contradict the passage’s implication that the bank was “on a par with its competitors” (liens 7-8) by suggesting that the bank’s service was either superior to (choice D) or inferior to (choice E) that of its competitors.
"The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement mentioned in line 19"
This question asks you to infer, from information in the passage, what managers of the regional bank failed to consider concerning the service improvement mentioned in line 19. The best answer is D. Lines 19-22 state that the bank managers did not “analyze” whether their investments in service “would attract new customers by…providing difficult for competitors to copy.” From this statement it can be inferred that the bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement could be imitated by competing banks. Choices A, B, and C each raise an issue that could conceivably have been overlooked by the managers of the regional bank. However, the passage failed to consider any of these issues. Choice E mistakenly presumes that prior to the service improvement referred to in line 19, the service of the regional bank was inferior to that of competitors, whereas lines 7-16 suggest the bank’s service was on a par with that of its competitors.
"The discussion of the regional bank (line 13-24) serves which of the following functions within the passage as a whole?"
This question asks you to select the choice that best describes how the second paragraph (lines 13-24) logically relates to the purpose in the passage is to suggest that investments in service do not necessarily translate into a competitive advantage. The second paragraph logically relates to this purpose by presenting an example of a company that did not improve it competitive advantage by investments in service, even though it did improve service. Choice A can be eliminated: while it is true that the bank’s investment in service failed to produce a competitive advantage, there is no indication that the bank was unusual in this respect. Choice B is incorrect because although the passage suggests that the regional bank’s investments in service ere unwise in that they failed to improved the bank’s competitiveness, the second paragraph does not illustrate problems, or pitfalls, arising from the bank’s decision to invest in service rather than in other aspects of its business.
Choice C and D are incorrect because the passage does not discuss the kind of analysis managers use in deciding which services to invest in (choice C), or the relative advantages of investing in different aspects of service (choice D).
"The author uses the word “only” in line 23 most likely in order to"
This question requires you to identify the author’s most likely rhetorical purpose in using the word “only” in line 23 of the passage. The best answer is B. The word “only” in line 23 appears in a sentence that identifies the sole benefit of the bank’s investment in service. In this context, the word “only” highlights the low return on the bank’s investments in service: whereas the bank’s managers clearly had hoped to gain a competitive edge, in fact they gained only a single, seemingly insignificant benefit as a result of their investments in service, that is, the ease with which the improvement in service could be described to the bank’s customers. Choice A can be eliminated because there is no suggestion in the passage that it is odd either for service to improve as a result of investments in service or for businesses to invest in service improvements. Choice C is not correct because the passage does not discuss any particular attributes of the improvement. Choice D can be eliminated because the passage mentions only one incidental merit of the service improvement: ease of explanation (lines 22-24). It cannot, therefore, be accurately described as singling out a certain merit from other merits. Choice E is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the duration of the single benefit described.
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Intellectual authority is defined as the authority of arguments that prevail by virtue of good reasoning and do not depend on coercion or convention. A contrasting notion, institutional authority, refers to the power of social institutions to enforce acceptance of arguments that may or may not possess intellectual authority. The authority wielded by legal systems is especially interesting because such systems are institutions that nonetheless aspire to a purely intellectual authority. One judge goes so far as to claim that courts are merely passive vehicles for applying the intellectual authority of the law and possess no coercive powers of their own.
In contrast, some critics maintain that whatever authority judicial pronouncements have is exclusively institutional. Some of these critics go further, claiming that intellectual authority does not really exist—i.e., it reduces to institutional authority. But it can be countered that these claims break down when a sufficiently broad historical perspective is taken: Not all arguments accepted by institutions withstand the test of time, and some well-reasoned arguments never receive institutional imprimatur. The reasonable argument that goes unrecognized in its own time because it challenges institutional beliefs is common in intellectual history; intellectual authority and institutional consensus are not the same thing.
But the critics might respond, intellectual authority is only recognized as such because of institutional consensus. For example, if a musicologist were to claim that an alleged musical genius who, after several decades, had not gained respect and recognition for his or her compositions is probably not a genius, the critics might say that basing a judgment on a unit of time—“several decades”—is an institutional rather than an intellectual construct. What, the critics might ask, makes a particular number of decades reasonable evidence by which to judge genius? The answer, of course, is nothing, except for the fact that such institutional procedures have proved useful to musicologists in making such distinctions in the past.
The analogous legal concept is the doctrine of precedent, i.e., a judge’s merely deciding a case a certain way becoming a basis for deciding later cases the same way—a pure example of institutional authority. But eh critics miss the crucial distinction that when a judicial decision is badly reasoned, or simply no longer applies in the face of evolving social standards or practices, the notion of intellectual authority is introduced: judges reconsider, revise, or in some cases throw out in the reconsideration of decisions, leading one to draw the conclusion that legal systems contain a significant degree of intellectual authority even if the thrust of their power is predominantly institutional.
1. Which one of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Although some argue that the authority of legal systems is purely intellectual, these systems possess a degree of institutional authority due to their ability to enforce acceptance of badly reasoned or socially inappropriate judicial decisions.
(B) Although some argue that the authority of legal systems is purely institutional, theses systems are more correctly seen as vehicles for applying the intellectual authority of the law while possessing no coercive power of their own.
(C) Although some argue that the authority of legal systems is purely intellectual, these systems in fact wield institutional authority by virtue of the fact that intellectual authority reduces to institutional authority.
(D) Although some argue that the authority of legal systems is purely institutional, these systems possesses a degree of intellectual authority due to their ability to reconsider badly reasoned or socially inappropriate judicial decisions.
(E) Although some argue that the authority of legal systems is purely intellectual, these systems in fact wield exclusively institutional authority in that they possess the power to enforce acceptance of badly reasoned or socially inappropriate judicial decisions.
2. That some arguments “never receive institutional imprimatur” (line 22-23) most likely means that these arguments
(A) fail to gain institutional consensus
(B) fail to challenge institutional beliefs
(C) fail to conform to the example of precedent
(D) fail to convince by virtue of good reasoning
(E) fail to gain acceptance except by coercion
3. Which one of the following, if true, most challenges the author’s contention that legal systems contain a significant degree of intellectual authority?
(A) Judges often act under time constraints and occasionally render a badly reasoned or socially inappropriate decision.
(B) In some legal systems, the percentage of judicial decisions that contain faulty reasoning is far higher than it is in other legal systems.
(C) Many socially inappropriate legal decisions are thrown out by judges only after citizens begin to voice opposition to them.
(D) In some legal systems, the percentage of judicial decisions that are reconsidered and revised is far higher than it is in other legal systems.
(E) Judges are rarely willing to rectify the examples of faulty reasoning they discover when reviewing previous legal decisions.
4. Given the information in the passage, the author is LEAST likely to believe which one of the following?
(A) Institutional authority may depend on coercion; intellectual authority never does.
(B) Intellectual authority may accept well-reasoned arguments; institutional authority never does.
(C) Institutional authority may depend on convention; intellectual authority never does.
(D) Intellectual authority sometimes challenges institutional beliefs; institutional authority never does.
(E) Intellectual authority sometimes conflicts with precedent; institutional authority never does.
5. The author discusses the example from musicology primarily in order to
(A) distinguish the nothing of institutional authority from that of intellectual authority
(B) given an example of an argument possessing intellectual authority that did not prevail in its own time
(C) identify an example in which the ascription of musical genius did not withstand the test of time
(D) illustrate the claim that assessing intellectual authority requires an appeal to institutional authority
(E) demonstrate that the authority wielded by the arbiters of musical genius is entirely institutional
6. Based on the passage, the author would be most likely to hold which one of the following views about the doctrine of precedent?
(A) it is the only tool judges should use if they wish to achieve a purely intellectual authority.
(B) It is a useful tool in theory but in practice it invariably conflicts with the demands of intellectual authority.
(C) It is a useful tool but lacks intellectual authority unless it is combined with the reconsidering of decisions.
(D) It is often an unreliable tool because it prevents judges from reconsidering the intellectual authority of past decisions.
(E) It is an unreliable tool that should be abandoned because it lacks intellectual authority.
RC#03One of the greatest challenges facing medical students today, apart from absorbing volumes of technical information and learning habits of scientific thought, is that of remaining empathetic to the needs of patients in the face of all this rigorous training. Requiring students to immerse themselves completely in medical coursework risks disconnecting them from the personal and ethical aspects of doctoring, and such strictly scientific thinking is insufficient for grappling with modern ethical dilemmas. For these reasons, aspiring physicians need to develop new ways of thinking about and interacting with patients. Training in ethics that takes narrative literature as its primary subject is one method of accomplishing this.
Although training in ethics is currently provided by medical schools, this training relies heavily on an abstract, philosophical view of ethics. Although the conceptual clarity provided by a traditional ethics course can be valuable, theorizing about ethics contributes little to the understanding of everyday human experience or to preparing medical students for the multifarious ethical dilemmas they will face as physicians. A true foundation in ethics must be predicated on an understanding of human behavior that reflects a wide array of relationships and readily adapts to various perspectives, for this is what is required to develop empathy. Ethics courses drawing on narrative literature can better help students prepare for ethical dilemmas precisely because such literature attaches its readers so forcefully to the concrete and varied would of human events.
The act of reading narrative literature is uniquely suited to the development of what might be called flexible ethical thinking. To grasp the development of character, to tangle with heightening moral crises, and to engage oneself with the story not as one's own but nevertheless as something recognizable and worthy of attention, readers must use their moral imagination. Giving oneself over to the ethical conflicts in a story requires the abandonment of strictly absolute, inviolate sets of moral principles. Reading literature also demands that the reader adopt another person's point of view ¨Cthat of the narrator or a character in a story¡ªand thus requires the ability to depart from one's personal ethical stance and examine moral issues from new perspectives.
It does not follow that readers, including medical professionals, must relinquish all moral principles, as is the case with situational ethics, in which decisions about ethical choices are made on the basis of intuition ad are entirely relative to the circumstances in which they arise. Such an extremely relativistic stance would have as little benefit for the patient or physician as would a dogmatically absolutist one. Fortunately, the incorporation of narrative literature into the study of ethics, while serving as a corrective to the later stance, need not lead to the former. But it can give us something that is lacking in the traditional philosophical study of ethics¡ªnamely, a deeper understanding of human nature that can serve as a foundation for ethical reasoning and allow greater flexibility in the application of moral principles.
1. Which one of the following is most likely the author's overall purpose in the passage?
(A) To advise medical schools on how to implement a narrative-based approach to ethics in their curricula.
(B) To argue that the current methods of ethics education are counterproductive to the formation of empathetic doctor-patient relationships.
(C) To argue that the ethical content of narrative literature foreshadows the pitfalls of situational ethics.
(D) To propose an approach to ethical training in medical school that will preserve the human dimension of medicine.
(E) To demonstrate the value of a well-designed ethics education for medical students.
2. The passage ascribes each of the following characteristics to the use of narrative literature in ethical education EXCEPT:
(A) It tends to avoid the extreme relativism of situational ethics.
(B) It connects students to varied types of human events.
(C) It can help lead medical students to develop new ways of dealing with patients.
(D) It requires students to examine moral issues from new perspectives.
(E) It can help insulate future doctors from the shock of the ethical dilemmas they will confront.
3. The author's attitude regarding the traditional method of teaching ethics in medical school can
most accurately be described as
(A) unqualified disapproval of the method and disapproval of all of its effects
(B) reserved judgment regarding the method and disapproval of all of its effects
(C) partial disapproval of the method and clinical indifference toward its effects
(D) partial approval of the method and disapproval of all of its effects
(E) partial disapproval of the method and approval
4. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage?
(A) Training in ethics that incorporates narrative literature would better cultivate flexible ethical thinking and increase medical students' capacity for empathetic patient care as compared with the traditional approach of medical schools to such training.
(B) Traditional abstract ethical training, because it is too heavily focused on theoretical reasoning, tends to decrease or impair that medical student's sensitivity to modern ethical dilemmas.
(C) Only a properly designed curriculum that balances situational, abstract, and narrative approaches to ethics will adequately prepare the medical student for complex ethical confrontations involving actual patients.
(D) Narrative-based instruction in ethics is becoming increasingly popular in medical schools because it requires students to develop a capacity for empathy by examining complex moral issues from a variety of perspectives.
(E) The study of narrative literature in medical schools would nurture moral intuition, enabling the future doctor to make ethical decisions without appeal to general principles.
5. Which one of the following most accurately represents the author's use of the term "moral imagination" in line 38?
(A) a sense of curiosity, aroused by reading, that leads one to follow actively the development of problems involving the characters depicted in narratives.
(B) A faculty of seeking out and recognizing the ethical controversies involved in human relationships and identifying oneself with one side or another in such controversies
(C) A capacity to understand the complexities of various ethical dilemmas and to fashion creative and innovative solutions to them
(D) An ability to understand personal aspects of ethically significant situations even if one is not a direct participant and to empathize with those involved in them.
(E) An ability to act upon ethical principles different from one's own for the sake of variety.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely agree with which one of the following statements?
(A) The heavy load of technical coursework in today's medical schools often keeps them from giving adequate emphasis to courses in medical ethics.
(B) Students learn more about ethics through the use of fiction than through the use of non-fictional readings.
(C) The traditional method of ethical training in medical schools should be supplemented or replaced by more direct practical experience with real-life patients in ethically difficult situations.
(D) The failing of an abstract, philosophical training in ethics can be remedied only by replacing it with a purely narrative-based approach.
(E) Neither scientific training nor traditional philosophical ethics adequately prepares doctors to deal with the emotional dimension of patient's needs.
Available on PM
Have made the thread 'Sticky'.
Try posting the RC in .doc format. It improves the readability of the thread.
RC#04:As critics who denounce movies that “glamorise violence” or “glamorise smoking” understand, glamour is much more than style. It is a potent tool of persuasion, a form of nonverbal rhetoric that heightens and focuses desire, particularly the longing for transformation (an ideal self) and escape (in a new setting). Glamour is all about hope and change. It lifts us out of everyday experience and makes our desires seem attainable. Depending on the audience, that feeling may provide momentary pleasure or life-altering inspiration.
The pleasure and inspiration may be real, but glamour always contains an illusion. The word originally meant a literal magic spell, which made the viewer see something that wasn’t there. In its modern, metaphorical form, glamour usually begins with a stylized image—visual or mental—of a person, an object, an event, or a setting. The image is not entirely false, but it is misleading. Its allure depends on obscuring or ignoring some details while heightening others. We see the dance but not the rehearsals, the stiletto heels but not the blisters, the skyline but not the dirty streets, the sports car but not the gas pump. To sustain the illusion, glamour requires an element of mystery. It is not transparent or opaque but translucent, inviting just enough familiarity to engage the imagination and trigger the viewer’s own fantasies.
Glamour can, of course, sell evening gowns, vacation packages, and luxury kitchens. But it can also promote moon shots and “green jobs,” urban renewal schemes and military action. (The “glamour of battle” long preceded the glamour of Hollywood.) Californians once found freeways glamorous; today they thrill to promises of high-speed rail. “Terror is glamour,” said Salman Rushdie in a 2006 interview, identifying the inspiration of jihadi terrorists. New Soviet Man was a glamorous concept. So is the American Dream.
Glamour, in short, is serious stuff. It can alter life plans, even change history. And as a broad psychological phenomenon, it holds intrinsic interest. While rarely addressed in discussions, glamour is the sort of topic to which such 18th-century titans as Adam Smith and David Hume often turned their attention. It spans culture and commerce, psychology and art.
1. The author quotes Salman Rushdie in order to
a. point out the reason jihadis are fascinated by terrorism.
b. emphasise that war and battles are more glamorous than movies.
c. show that glamour can even promote unsavoury things.
d. prove that glamour is a widespread phenomenon.
2. The author contends that the imagery used for glamour is
a. predominantly false
b. predominantly true
3. The author is primarily focussing on glamour as
a. a tool of persuasion.
b. a life-changing phenomenon
c. a cultural feature
d. a social current
4. According to the author,
a. glamour promotes moon shots and green jobs.
b. glamour changes history and modifies life plans.
c. glamour includes illusion.
d. glamour has been misunderstood by critics.
Official Answers for RC#04,
RC#05:Throughout human history the leading causes of death have been infection and trauma. Modem medicine has scored significant victories against both, and the major causes of ill health and death are now the chronic degenerative diseases, such as coronary artery disease, arthritis, osteoporosis, Alzheimer’s, macular degeneration, cataract and cancer. These have a long latency period before symptoms appear and a diagnosis is made. It follows that the majority of apparently healthy people are pre-ill.
But are these conditions inevitably degenerative? A truly preventive medicine that focused on the pre-ill, analysing the metabolic errors which lead to clinical illness, might be able to correct them before the first symptom. Genetic risk factors are known for all the chronic degenerative diseases, and are important to the individuals who possess them. At the population level, however, migration studies confirm that these illnesses are linked for the most part to lifestyle factors — exercise, smoking and nutrition. Nutrition is the easiest of these to change, and the most versatile tool for affecting the metabolic changes needed to tilt the balance away from disease.
Many national surveys reveal that malnutrition is common in developed countries. This is not the calorie and/or micronutrient deficiency associated with developing nations (Type A malnutrition); but multiple micronutrient depletion, usually combined with calorific balance or excess (Type B malnutrition). The incidence and severity of Type B malnutrition will be shown to be worse if newer micronutrient groups such as the essential fatty acids, xanthophylls and flavonoids are included in the surveys. Commonly ingested levels of these micronutrients seem to be far too low in many developed countries.
There is now considerable evidence that Type B malnutrition is a major cause of chronic degenerative diseases. If this is the case, then it is logical to treat such diseases not with drugs but with multiple micronutrient repletion, or ‘pharmaco-nutrition’. This can take the form of pills and capsules — ‘nutraceuticals’, or food formats known as ‘functional foods’, This approach has been neglected hitherto because it is relatively unprofitable for drug companies — the products are hard to patent — and it is a strategy which does not sit easily with modem medical interventionism. Over the last 100 years, the drug industry has invested huge sums in developing a range of subtle and powerful drugs to treat the many diseases we are subject to. Medical training is couched in pharmaceutical terms and this approach has provided us with an exceptional range of therapeutic tools in the treatment of disease and in acute medical emergencies. However, the pharmaceutical model has also created an unhealthy dependency culture, in which relatively few of us accept responsibility for maintaining our own health. Instead, we have handed over this responsibility to health professionals who know very little about health maintenance, or disease prevention.
One problem for supporters of this argument is lack of the right kind of hard evidence. We have a wealth of epidemiological data linking dietary factors to health profiles / disease risks, and a great deal of information on mechanism: how food factors interact with our biochemistry. But almost all intervention studies with micronutrients, with the notable exception of the omega 3 fatty acids, have so far produced conflicting or negative results. In other words, our science appears to have no predictive value. Does this invalidate the science? Or are we simply asking the wrong questions?
Based on pharmaceutical thinking, most intervention studies have attempted to measure the impact of a single micronutrient on the incidence of disease. The classical approach says that if you give a compound formula to test subjects and obtain positive results, you cannot know which ingredient is exerting the benefit, so you must test each ingredient individually. But in the field of nutrition, this does not work. Each intervention on its own will hardly make enough difference to be measured. The best therapeutic response must therefore combine micronutrients to normalise our internal physiology. So do we need to analyse each individual’s nutritional status and then tailor a formula specifically for him or her? While we do not have the resources to analyse millions of individual cases, there is no need to do so. The vast majority of people are consuming suboptimal amounts of most micronutrients, and most of the micronutrients concerned are very safe. Accordingly, a comprehensive and universal program of micronutrient support is probably the most cost-effective and safest way of improving the general health of the nation.
1. Why are a large number of apparently healthy people deemed pre-ill?
1. They may have chronic degenerative diseases.
2. They do not know their own genetic risk factors which predispose them to diseases.
3. They suffer from Type-B malnutrition.
4. There is a lengthy latency period associated with chronically degenerative diseases
2. Type-B malnutrition is a serious concern in developed countries because
1. developing countries mainly suffer from Type-A malnutrition.
2. it is a major contributor to illness and death.
3. pharmaceutical companies are not producing drugs to treat this-condition.
4. national surveys on malnutrition do not include newer micronutrient groups.
3. Tailoring micronutrient-based treatment plans to suit individual deficiency profiles is not necessary because
1. it very likely to give inconsistent or negative results.
2. it is a classic pharmaceutical approach not suited to micronutrients.
3. most people are consuming suboptimal amounts of safe-to-consume micronutrients.
4. it is not cost effective to do so.
4. The author recommends micronutrient-repletion for large-scale treatment of chronic degenerative diseases because
1. it is relatively easy to manage.
2. micronutrient deficiency is the cause of these diseases.
3. it can overcome genetic risk factors.
4. it can compensate for other lifestyle factors.
RC05 (My take)
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All the best guys..!
know a little about a lot
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